Mark,
I agree with at least most of what you said, but I am a little unclear about how it responds to my argument.
It wasn't primarily intended as a response to your argument on IP; it was intended as a tangential remark on an issue raised by your comment. Sorry; I should have been clearer about that.
So, I am still looking for the logic of granting ownership rights to homesteaders, but denying them to inventors.
Well, the issue is what "ownership rights" would mean in each context, and I do fear that you're right that the common talk of "scarcity" typically obscures the issue more than it reveals it. The difference-in-kind here is better expressed in terms of two features: (1) the
non-rivalrous character of intellectual objects, and (2) the
inalienability of (mental) self-ownership.
In the case of a homesteading claim, if I homestead 40 acres for farming, and someone comes along five months later, fences off 20 acres, cuts down my fig trees, tears up my tomatoes, and starts using half of the land to build their own house and a paddock for their horses, then I can clearly specify what their use of the land has deprived me of: the use of the 20 acres, the fig trees, and the tomatoes.
But now say that I write a story about Mideast politics which I intend to publish on my blog; and after I've done so, someone comes along, finds my blog, and, without first asking me for permission, grabs the story to publish it in the Journal of Historical Review, a rag I never would have wanted it published in. (*) This would be ... unpleasant. But of what have I been deprived? I haven't been deprived of
the story -- that's an abstract object, which is hardly the sort of thing that can be seized from me or destroyed; and I haven't been deprived of
my copy of the story either -- that's still safe at home on my blog. Reason being that the physical copies are simply distinct objects (I have mine and JHR has theirs); and the intellectual objects expressed by the physical copies are
non-rivalrous -- one person's enjoyment of them doesn't diminish another person's access to them.
You might say that I've been deprived of control over my words; but if I let loose my ideas so that they end up in someone else's brain, I don't think I could possibly claim to control all instances of my words without claiming that I own other people's minds; and I don't. Or you might say that I've been deprived somehow of the sale value of my work, seeing as how the copyist didn't pay me. But again, a sale price is what
someone else is
willing to pay in a market transaction; it's a part of someone else's mental dispositions, not a possession that I can own. I may be deprived of some ancillary goods -- for example, if JHR prints my name on their list of contributors, that may hurt my reputation. But my reputation, again, is simply what other people think of me, and I don't own other people's opinions. Etc.
Of course, JHR could have voluntarily bound themselves to terms that would limit their freedom of action -- for example, by agreeing to a contract with me that forbade them from republishing my stuff without my permission. But they haven't.
(* This actually happened to a friend of mine. It was, indeed, unpleasant. In the extreme. But I would argue not a violation of his individual rights.)