**rechelon:** > "Profit" in the abstract can be perfectly egalitarian because of marginality **dbzer0:** > How the fuck is that even possible? How is the fact that your boss keeps part of the value you create based on the fact that he happens to "own" the capital, egalitarian (not to mention giving you orders during work). You do realize, don't you, that the "in the abstract" and the "can be" in that sentence were supposed to do some logical work? "Profit" is not the same thing, conceptually, as "the money your boss makes." All profit means is just making more from producing something than it cost to produce it. Sometimes when people talk about "profit" they mean, narrowly, monetary balances; other times it may include non-monetary gains as well. In the latter, more abstract sense, *any* successful productive activity at all will have some profit (the goal being to get something worthwhile out of what you do, without sacrificing more than it's worth). In *either* sense, the question is not whether or not there is profiting, but who is getting the profits. Of course, under current conditions, your boss usually claims the residual profits from the work you do. (Or, more likely, a bunch of investors claim it, with your boss getting a cut directly, through shareholding, and indirectly, through bonuses.) But there is no reason in the abstract why that has to be the case. In a free society, there's no reason why owners of capital have to be residual claimants on profits from working on that capital, and there's no reason either why the people who work on capital can't be the owners of that capital. The reason why both of these are the case in our notably unfree society is has a lot to do with the fact that it is unfree: because workers' bargaining position are coercively undermined, and ownership of the means of production is coercively constrained, by the usual array of plutocratic government supports for corporate privilege and monopoly. When workers own the factories, there will be profits from their labor; it's just that the profits will go to the laborers and the people who use the things that they make. Which is *fine* -- there's nothing wrong with the people who make computers and the people who use computers getting a mutual net benefit from associating with each other. The problem now is not profit, but rather the fact that profit is claimed by people whose claim to it rests not on providing benefits, but rather from maintaining a position of political and cultural privilege. **dbzer0:** > The LTV is not a goddamn normative proposition. . . . I'm glad that you're so sure about what the Labor Theory of Value is and is not, but historically the people who developed the theory weren't so sure, or at least weren't agreed amongst themselves. I can think of at least three major schools of thought about what the LTV is supposed to do and what role it's supposed to play in theory, and in one of those schools of thought (advocated by Josiah Warren, for example, as well as various "utopian socialists") it clearly was intended to be a normative proposition, about how people ought to act if they are dealing honestly and forthrightly with each other. (Today, you see similar notions among, e.g., the proponents of Ithaca Hours, or other forms of exchange or production that are based on calculating labor time.) For others (like Tucker the late 19th century, or Kevin Carson today), the labor theory is supposed to be an explanatory theory about how exchange *would* work for most goods, in *a free and equal society*. (Hence, its main role in discussing society now was as a heuristic for discovering the points at which society is not free and equal -- where politically-backed monopoly is deforming production and exchange; e.g., Tucker argued that access to capital, land ownership, and the dissemination and application of ideas don't operate on the cost principle in actually-existing capitalism, and that is how you could tell that they were being constrained by the political violence of the Money Monopoly, the Land Monopoly, and the Patent Monopoly.) The version of the LTV that you seem to be pushing here is more or less the Marxist version, in which the labor theory is taken to be part of an explanatory theory about how surplus value arises under actually-existing capitalism, in which it is claimed (in contrast with the Tuckerite view) that goods *do* generally trade at the value of their total embodied labor, but that workers are paid far below that value, with wages being driven down far below that value to subsistence levels. Of course, you're welcome to assign any meaning that you want to the terms that you use, but if you're going to reply to William you should probably try to find out what meaning *he* is assigning to those terms before you fire away at him.